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Question Number 200802 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 23/Nov/23 Answered by witcher3 last updated on 23/Nov/23 $$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \mathrm{e}^{−\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} } \mathrm{dx}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \mathrm{t}^{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}−\mathrm{1}} \mathrm{e}^{−\mathrm{t}} \mathrm{dt},\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}}…
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