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Question Number 91217 by mhmd last updated on 28/Apr/20 Commented by Prithwish Sen 1 last updated on 28/Apr/20 $$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{n}\pi} \mid\mathrm{cosx}\mid\mathrm{dx}\:=\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{n}}\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\boldsymbol{\pi}} \mid\mathrm{cosx}\mid\mathrm{dx}\:=\:\mathrm{n}\left[\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\frac{\boldsymbol{\pi}}{\mathrm{2}}} \boldsymbol{\mathrm{cosxdx}}+\int_{\frac{\boldsymbol{\pi}}{\mathrm{2}}}…
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