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Question Number 136651 by mhabs last updated on 24/Mar/21 Answered by Ñï= last updated on 24/Mar/21 $$\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\pi/\mathrm{2}} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{1}+\left({a}\mathrm{tan}\:{x}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} }{dx}\overset{{t}=\mathrm{tan}\:{x}} {=}\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{1}+{a}^{\mathrm{2}} {t}^{\mathrm{2}} }\centerdot\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{1}+{t}^{\mathrm{2}}…
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