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Category: Relation and Functions

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Question Number 106707 by bemath last updated on 06/Aug/20 $$\:\:\:\:@\mathrm{bemath}@ \\ $$$$\mathcal{G}\mathrm{iven}\:\begin{cases}{\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=\mathrm{2x}+\mathrm{3}}\\{\left(\mathrm{g}\circ\mathrm{f}\right)\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=\mathrm{2x}−\mathrm{1}}\end{cases} \\ $$$$\mathrm{find}\:\left(\mathrm{f}\circ\mathrm{g}\right)\left(\mathrm{2}\right). \\ $$ Answered by john santu last updated on 06/Aug/20 Answered…

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Question Number 40984 by prof Abdo imad last updated on 30/Jul/18 $${let}\:{f}\left({x}\right)\:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\:{te}^{−{t}^{\mathrm{2}} } \:{arctan}\left({xt}\right){dt} \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{1}\right)\:{find}\:{a}\:{simple}\:{form}\:{of}\:{f}\left({x}\right) \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{2}\right)\:{calculate}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:{te}^{−{t}^{\mathrm{2}} } {arctantdt}\:{and} \\…

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Question Number 40885 by prof Abdo imad last updated on 28/Jul/18 $${prove}\:{that} \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{1}\right)\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\frac{{t}^{{p}} {ln}\left({t}\right)}{{t}−\mathrm{1}}{dt}\:=\frac{\pi^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{6}}\:−\sum_{{k}=\mathrm{1}} ^{{p}} \:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{k}^{\mathrm{2}} } \\ $$$$\left.\mathrm{2}\right)\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \:\:\frac{{t}^{\mathrm{2}{p}}…