Question Number 100285 by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20 | ||
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 26/Jun/20 | ||
$$\mathrm{p}\:=\frac{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{n}+\mathrm{1}} } }{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\:\:\:\mathrm{we}\:\mathrm{can}\:\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{this}\:\mathrm{by}\:\mathrm{recurrence}\:\:\left(\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}} \:\neq\mathrm{1}\right) \\ $$ | ||
Commented by Coronavirus last updated on 26/Jun/20 | ||
️️ I'm just seeing | ||
Commented by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20 | ||
Commented by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20 | ||
please sir check ! | ||
Commented by abdomsup last updated on 27/Jun/20 | ||
$${correct} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by DGmichael last updated on 27/Jun/20 | ||
thanks | ||