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Question Number 103278 by bachamohamed last updated on 13/Jul/20

$$\underset{\mathit{k}=0}{\sum ^{\mathrm{\infty }}}\frac{1}{\mathit{k}!({\mathit{k}}^4+{\mathit{k}}^2+1)}=?$$

Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 13/Jul/20

$$\mathrm{By}\mathrm{ratio}\mathrm{test}\mathrm{it}\mathrm{converges}\mathrm{sir}!$$

Commented by bachamohamed last updated on 14/Jul/20

$$\mathrm{yes}$$

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