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Question Number 106609 by DeepakMahato last updated on 06/Aug/20

$$Provethat$$$$(1-{sin}^2\theta ){sec}^2\theta =1$$

Commented by mohammad17 last updated on 06/Aug/20

$$when:1-{sin}^2\theta ={cos}^2\theta$$$$when:{sec}^2\theta =\frac{1}{{cos}^2\theta }$$$$$$$$\rfloor (1-{sin}^2\theta ){sec}^2\theta ={cos}^2\theta \times \frac{1}{{cos}^2\theta }=1$$$$$$$$m.ss.mohammad$$

Answered by JDamian last updated on 06/Aug/20

$$(1-(1-{\cos }^2\theta ))\frac{1}{{\cos }^2\theta }={\cos }^2\theta \frac{1}{{\cos }^2\theta }=1$$

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