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Question Number 106683 by Ar Brandon last updated on 06/Aug/20

Prove that ∫_0 ^π ln(1−2αcost+α^2 )dt=2πlnα

$$\mathrm{Prove}\:\mathrm{that}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\pi} \mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{2}\alpha\mathrm{cost}+\alpha^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\mathrm{dt}=\mathrm{2}\pi\mathrm{ln}\alpha \\ $$

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