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Question Number 107291 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 09/Aug/20

let x∈R−{1,−1} explicit the function  f(x) =∫_0 ^(2π)  ln(x^2 −2xcosθ +1)dθ

$$\mathrm{let}\:\mathrm{x}\in\mathrm{R}−\left\{\mathrm{1},−\mathrm{1}\right\}\:\mathrm{explicit}\:\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{function} \\ $$$$\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)\:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{2}\pi} \:\mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} −\mathrm{2xcos}\theta\:+\mathrm{1}\right)\mathrm{d}\theta \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Answered by Ar Brandon last updated on 10/Aug/20

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