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Question Number 107291 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 09/Aug/20

$$\mathrm{let}\mathrm{x}\in \mathrm{R}-\{1,-1\}\mathrm{explicit}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{function}$$$$\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)={\int }_0^{2\pi }\ln ({\mathrm{x}}^2-2\mathrm{xcos}\theta +1)\mathrm{d}\theta$$$$$$

Answered by Ar Brandon last updated on 10/Aug/20

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