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Question Number 108399 by bobhans last updated on 16/Aug/20 | ||
Commented by mr W last updated on 16/Aug/20 | ||
$$\mathrm{1}−\frac{\mathrm{9}!}{\mathrm{10}!/\mathrm{2}!}=\frac{\mathrm{4}}{\mathrm{5}} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by bobhans last updated on 17/Aug/20 | ||
$${yess}.... \\ $$ | ||