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Question Number 108399 by bobhans last updated on 16/Aug/20

Commented by mr W last updated on 16/Aug/20

1−((9!)/(10!/2!))=(4/5)

$$\mathrm{1}−\frac{\mathrm{9}!}{\mathrm{10}!/\mathrm{2}!}=\frac{\mathrm{4}}{\mathrm{5}} \\ $$

Commented by bobhans last updated on 17/Aug/20

yess....

$${yess}.... \\ $$

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