Question Number 110145 by mathdave last updated on 27/Aug/20
$${prove}\:{that} \\ $$$$\int_{\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{ln}\left({x}\right)}{\mathrm{1}+{x}+{x}^{\mathrm{2}} +{x}^{\mathrm{3}} }{dx}=\frac{{G}}{\mathrm{2}}−\frac{\pi^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{32}} \\ $$$${G}\left({catalan}\:{constant}\right) \\ $$
Answered by mnjuly1970 last updated on 27/Aug/20
$$\:{edited}\:.... \\ $$$$\:{m}.{n}.{july}\:\mathrm{1970}\:...\Downarrow\Downarrow\Downarrow \\ $$
Answered by mnjuly1970 last updated on 27/Aug/20
Commented by mathdave last updated on 27/Aug/20
$${brillant}\:{workdone}\:{keep}\:{it}\:{up} \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 27/Aug/20
$${thank}\:{you}\:{for}\:{your}\:{nice} \\ $$$${problems}...{peace}\:{be}\:{upon} \\ $$$${you}... \\ $$