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Question Number 110869 by Study last updated on 31/Aug/20
Answered by mathdave last updated on 31/Aug/20
letI=limx→0x!1xbylogginbothsidewehavelnI=limx→0lnx!xbutx!=Γ(x+1)lnI=limx→0lnΓ(1+x)xapplylihospita′srulelnI=limx→0Γ′(1+x)Γ(1+x)butΨ(1+x)=Γ′(1+x)Γ(1+x)lnI=limx→0Ψ(1+x)=−Ψ(1)I=e−Ψ∵limx→0x!x=e−Ψ
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