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Question Number 111620 by mathdave last updated on 04/Sep/20
showthat∫01lnΓ(x)dx=ln2π
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 04/Sep/20
wehaveΓ(x).Γ(1−x)=πsin(πx)(complimentformulae)witho<x<1⇒ln(Γ(x)+lnΓ(1−x)=ln(π)−ln(sin(πx))⇒∫01lnΓ(x)dx+∫01lnΓ(1−x)dx=ln(π)−∫01ln(sin(πx)dxbut∫01lnΓ(1−x)dx=1−x=t∫01lnΓ(t)dt⇒2∫01lnΓ(x)dx=ln(π)−∫01ln(sin(πx)dxwehave∫01ln(sin(πx))dx=πx=u1π∫0πln(sinu)du=1π{∫0π2ln(sinu)du+∫π2πln(sinu)du(→u=π2+t)}=1π{−π2ln(2)+∫0π2ln(cost)dt}=1π{−π2ln(2)−π2ln(2)}=−ln2⇒2∫01lnΓ(x)dx=ln(π)+ln(2)=ln(2π)⇒∫01lnΓ(x)dx=12ln(2π)=ln(2π).
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 06/Sep/20
thankyousomuch′sir′foryoureffort...
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 06/Sep/21
greatsir
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