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Question Number 111879 by mathdave last updated on 05/Sep/20

prove that   lim_(n→∞) nΣ_(k=1) ^(n−1) ((ln(k+n)−ln(n))/(k^2 +n^2 ))=(π/8)ln2

provethatlimnnn1k=1ln(k+n)ln(n)k2+n2=π8ln2

Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 05/Sep/20

lim_(n→∞) nΣ_(k=0) ^n ((log((k/n)+1))/(k^2 +n^2 ))=lim_(n→∞) (1/n)Σ_(k=0) ^n ((log((k/n)+1))/((k^2 /n^2 )+1))  =∫_0 ^1 ((log(x+1))/(x^2 +1))dx  =∫_0 ^(π/4) ((log(tanθ+1))/(tan^2 θ+1)).sec^2 θ dθ  =∫_0 ^(π/4) log(sinθ+cosθ)−log(cosθ)  =∫_0 ^(π/4) log((√2))+log(((sinθ+cosθ)/( (√2))))−log(cosθ) dθ  =∫_0 ^(π/4) (1/2)log(2)+[∫_0 ^(π/4) log(cos((π/4)−θ)−log(cosθ))]=I  =(π/8)log(2)+I=(π/8)log(2)  ((∫_0 ^(π/4) log(cos((π/4)−θ))−log(cosθ)=∫_0 ^(π/4) log(cosθ)−log(cos((π/4)−θ))=I  2I=0))

limnnnk=0log(kn+1)k2+n2=limn1nnk=0log(kn+1)k2n2+1=01log(x+1)x2+1dx=0π4log(tanθ+1)tan2θ+1.sec2θdθ=0π4log(sinθ+cosθ)log(cosθ)=0π4log(2)+log(sinθ+cosθ2)log(cosθ)dθ=0π412log(2)+[0π4log(cos(π4θ)log(cosθ))]=I=π8log(2)+I=π8log(2)((0π4log(cos(π4θ))log(cosθ)=0π4log(cosθ)log(cos(π4θ))=I2I=0))

Commented by mathdave last updated on 05/Sep/20

oh no check ur working again

ohnocheckurworkingagain

Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 05/Sep/20

  famous  integral and its  answer : (π/8)ln(2)✓

famousintegralanditsanswer:π8ln(2)

Commented by mathdave last updated on 05/Sep/20

this ur working enhhh just dey  somehow

thisurworkingenhhhjustdeysomehow

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