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Question Number 113793 by Eric002 last updated on 15/Sep/20

$$prove$$$$\underset{k=1}{\sum ^{\mathrm{\infty }}}\frac{{sin}^2\left(\pi k\right)-\pi ksin\left(kx\right)cos\left(\pi k\right)}{k^2}=\frac{\pi }{4}$$

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