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Question Number 114107 by mathdave last updated on 17/Sep/20
provethat∫0π2[ln(1−sinx1+sinx)cosx(1+sinx)1−sinx]dx=−8
Commented by mathdave last updated on 17/Sep/20
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 06/Sep/21
greatsir
Answered by maths mind last updated on 17/Sep/20
=∫0π2ln(1−cos(x)1+cos(x))sin(x)(1+cos(x))1−cos(x)dx1+cos(x)=2cos2(x2)and1−cos(x)=2sin2(x2)⇒=∫0π2ln(tg2(x2))2sin(x2)cos(x2)2cos2(x2)2sin2(x2)dx=2∫0π2ln(tg(x2))sin(x2)cos(x2)dx2cos2(x2)tg(x2)=t⇒dt=dx2cos2(x2)weget=2∫01ln(x)xdx=[4xln(x)]01−4∫01dxx=−4[2x]01=−8
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