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Question Number 115471 by manuel2456 last updated on 26/Sep/20

For angles a,b,c∈R with a+b+c=π,   prove the following identities:  tan^(−1) ((a/2))+tan^(−1) ((b/2))+tan^(−1) ((c/2))=(tan((a/2))tan((b/2))tan((c/2)))^(−1)   Help

$${For}\:{angles}\:{a},{b},{c}\in\mathbb{R}\:{with}\:{a}+{b}+{c}=\pi,\: \\ $$$${prove}\:{the}\:{following}\:{identities}: \\ $$$$\mathrm{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left(\frac{{a}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)+\mathrm{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left(\frac{{b}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)+\mathrm{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left(\frac{{c}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)=\left(\mathrm{tan}\left(\frac{{a}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)\mathrm{tan}\left(\frac{{b}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)\mathrm{tan}\left(\frac{{c}}{\mathrm{2}}\right)\right)^{−\mathrm{1}} \\ $$$$\mathrm{H}{elp} \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Commented by Olaf last updated on 27/Sep/20

Sorry sir, are you sure your formula  is good ? Even for a particular value  it seems to be wrong.  For example try a = b = c = (π/3).

$$\mathrm{Sorry}\:\mathrm{sir},\:\mathrm{are}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{sure}\:\mathrm{your}\:\mathrm{formula} \\ $$$$\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{good}\:?\:\mathrm{Even}\:\mathrm{for}\:\mathrm{a}\:\mathrm{particular}\:\mathrm{value} \\ $$$$\mathrm{it}\:\mathrm{seems}\:\mathrm{to}\:\mathrm{be}\:\mathrm{wrong}. \\ $$$$\mathrm{For}\:\mathrm{example}\:\mathrm{try}\:{a}\:=\:{b}\:=\:{c}\:=\:\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{3}}. \\ $$

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