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Question Number 115664 by bemath last updated on 27/Sep/20
Iflimx→ppx−xpxx−pp=1thenp=?
Answered by Olaf last updated on 27/Sep/20
x=p+ulimx→pexlnp−eplnxexlnx−eplnplimx→pexlnp+plnx2(exlnp−plnx2−e−xlnp−plnx2)exlnx+plnp2(exlnx−plnp2−e−xlnx−plnp2)limx→pexlnpx+plnxp2[sinh(xlnp−plnx2)sinh(xlnx−plnp2)]limx→p1×[sinh(xlnp−plnx2)sinh(xlnx−plnp2)]limx→p[(lnp−px2)cosh(xlnp−plnx2)(lnx+12)cosh(xlnx−plnp2)]=lnp−1lnp+1=ln(pe)ln(ep)ln(pe)ln(ep)=1⇒pe=ep?I′msurelywrong.
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 27/Sep/20
limx→ppx−xpxx−pp=pxlogp−pxp−1xx(1+logx)=pp(logp−1)pp(logp+1)=1logp−1logp+1=1OhithinkitisindependentofP!
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