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Question Number 11591 by agni5 last updated on 28/Mar/17

what is the intercept of  (x^2 /a^2 )−(y^2 /b^2 )=1  on  the x-axis ?

$$\mathrm{what}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{intercept}\:\mathrm{of}\:\:\frac{\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}} }−\frac{\mathrm{y}^{\mathrm{2}} }{\mathrm{b}^{\mathrm{2}} }=\mathrm{1}\:\:\mathrm{on} \\ $$$$\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{x}-\mathrm{axis}\:? \\ $$

Answered by ajfour last updated on 28/Mar/17

2a

$$\mathrm{2}{a} \\ $$

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