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Question Number 117066 by bemath last updated on 09/Oct/20
Givenf(x)=x−1x+1.Iff2(x)=f(f(x)),f3(x)=f(f(f(x))),f1998(x)=g(x)then∫1e1g(x)dx=_?
Answered by 1549442205PVT last updated on 09/Oct/20
f2(x)=x−1x+1−1x−1x+1+1=−22x=−1xf3(x)=−1x−1x+1=−x+1x−1f4(x)=−x−1x+1+1x−1x+1−1=−2x−2=xf5(x)=x−1x+1=f(x)Fromthatwegetthesequencef(x)=f5(x)=f9(x)=...f4k+1(x)Since1998=4.499+2,weinferg(x)=f1998(x)=f2(x)=−1x.Therefore,∫1e1g(x)dx=∫1e1(−1x)dx=−ln∣x∣1/e1=ln(1e)=ln1−lne=0−1=−1
Commented by bemath last updated on 09/Oct/20
yes...santuyy
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