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Question Number 118065 by andilizhaa last updated on 15/Oct/20

Answered by bobhans last updated on 15/Oct/20

$$\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=1-\cot \mathrm{x}$$$$\frac{\mathrm{df}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)}{\mathrm{dx}}=\mathrm{cosec}{}^2\left(\mathrm{x}\right)$$$$\frac{\mathrm{df}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)}{\mathrm{dx}}{\mid }_{\frac{\pi }{6}}=\frac{1}{\sin {}^2\left(\frac{\pi }{6}\right)}=4$$

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