Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

Set Theory Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in Set Theory      Next in Set Theory      

Question Number 123287 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 24/Nov/20

                 ... nice  calculus ...         number theory            prove thar :::                                  2^(32) +1≡^(641) 0 ✓     notice: without calculator and only              with the use of congruence properties..

$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:...\:{nice}\:\:{calculus}\:... \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:{number}\:{theory} \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:{prove}\:{thar}\:::: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{32}} +\mathrm{1}\overset{\mathrm{641}} {\equiv}\mathrm{0}\:\checkmark \\ $$$$\:\:\:{notice}:\:{without}\:{calculator}\:{and}\:{only} \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:{with}\:{the}\:{use}\:{of}\:{congruence}\:{properties}.. \\ $$

Answered by MJS_new last updated on 24/Nov/20

just divide?  I′ve been having problems with proofs that  are easy to calculate...  2^(32) +1=4 294 967 297=641×6700417  maybe try to show that 2^(100) +1≡0(401)?

$$\mathrm{just}\:\mathrm{divide}? \\ $$$$\mathrm{I}'\mathrm{ve}\:\mathrm{been}\:\mathrm{having}\:\mathrm{problems}\:\mathrm{with}\:\mathrm{proofs}\:\mathrm{that} \\ $$$$\mathrm{are}\:\mathrm{easy}\:\mathrm{to}\:\mathrm{calculate}... \\ $$$$\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{32}} +\mathrm{1}=\mathrm{4}\:\mathrm{294}\:\mathrm{967}\:\mathrm{297}=\mathrm{641}×\mathrm{6700417} \\ $$$$\mathrm{maybe}\:\mathrm{try}\:\mathrm{to}\:\mathrm{show}\:\mathrm{that}\:\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{100}} +\mathrm{1}\equiv\mathrm{0}\left(\mathrm{401}\right)? \\ $$

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com