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Question Number 130065 by Study last updated on 22/Jan/21

Commented by MJS_new last updated on 22/Jan/21

how could this be true? it′s nonsense  there′s a line through  ((a),(0) ) and  ((0),(b) ) for sny  given pair of a, b ∈R with not (a=0∧b=0)

$$\mathrm{how}\:\mathrm{could}\:\mathrm{this}\:\mathrm{be}\:\mathrm{true}?\:\mathrm{it}'\mathrm{s}\:\mathrm{nonsense} \\ $$$$\mathrm{there}'\mathrm{s}\:\mathrm{a}\:\mathrm{line}\:\mathrm{through}\:\begin{pmatrix}{{a}}\\{\mathrm{0}}\end{pmatrix}\:\mathrm{and}\:\begin{pmatrix}{\mathrm{0}}\\{{b}}\end{pmatrix}\:\mathrm{for}\:\mathrm{sny} \\ $$$$\mathrm{given}\:\mathrm{pair}\:\mathrm{of}\:{a},\:{b}\:\in\mathbb{R}\:\mathrm{with}\:\mathrm{not}\:\left({a}=\mathrm{0}\wedge{b}=\mathrm{0}\right) \\ $$

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