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Question Number 134270 by abdurehime last updated on 01/Mar/21
proofthat{kn}=k!n!×(k−n)!
Commented by mr W last updated on 02/Mar/21
youmean(nk)=k!n!×(k−n)!.{nk}hasdifferentmeaning.itisthestirlingnumberofthesecondkind.{nk}isthenumberofwaystodividekdistinctobjectsintonnon−emptygroups.forexample{24}=7.
perdefinition(nk)isthenumberofwaystochoosenobjectsfromkobjects.tochoosethefirstobjecttherearekways,toselectthesecondobjectthereare(k−1)ways.etc.toselectthen−thobject,thereare(k−n+1)ways.totallytherearek(k−1)(k−2)...(k−n+1)ways.sincetheorderofthenobjectsisnotofconcern,{nk}=k(k−1)(k−2)...(k−n+1)n!thiscanbesimplifiedto{nk}=k(k−1)(k−2)...(k−n+1)(k−n)(k−n−1)...1n!(k−n)(k−n−1)...1=k!n!×(k−n)!
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