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Question Number 134442 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 03/Mar/21
nice.....calculus...provethat::ϕ=∏∞n=1(1+1n4)=cosh(2π)−cos(2π)4π2.......................
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 03/Mar/21
∏∞n=1(1+1n4)=∏∞n=1(1+in2)(1−in2)=sinh(πi)sin(πi)π2i=sinh(π2(1+i))sin(π2(1+i))π2i=−eπ2+π2i−e−π2−π2i4π2.(eπ2i−π2−e−π2i+π2)=−e2πi−e2π−e−2π+e−2πi4π2=e2π+e2π−e2πi−e−2πi4π2=cosh(2π)−cos(2π)2π2
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 03/Mar/21
verynice...thanksalotsir..
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