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Question Number 137307 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 31/Mar/21
.....advancedcalculus.....provethat::∑∞n=0((−1)n4n2+1)=14(2+πcsch(π2))............................
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 31/Mar/21
1−15+117−137+165−1101+...1,17,65gn=an2+bn+c⇒g0=c=1g1=a+b+c=17⇒a+b=16g2=4a+2b+1=65⇒2a+b=32⇒a=16b=0c=1⇒gn=16n2+15,37,101gn=(4n+2)2+1∑∞n=0116n2+1−116n2+16n+5=116(π2.14coth(π4)−12.116)−14i5∑∞n=01(n−(−4+i58))−1(n−(−4−i58))=π8coth(π4)−12−14i5(ψ(12+i54)−ψ(12−i58))=π8coth(π4)−12+π4i5cot(12+i58)π=π8coth(π4)−12−π45tanh(58π):(
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