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Question Number 138552 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 14/Apr/21

               ...nice        mathemayics ...         𝛗=∫_0 ^( ∞) ((sin(tan(x)))/x)dx=(π/2)(1−(1/e))    .......

$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:...{nice}\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:{mathemayics}\:... \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\boldsymbol{\phi}=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \frac{{sin}\left({tan}\left({x}\right)\right)}{{x}}{dx}=\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}}\left(\mathrm{1}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{e}}\right) \\ $$$$\:\:....... \\ $$

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