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Question Number 140471 by EDWIN88 last updated on 08/May/21
Iflimx→0(cosx+asinbx)1x=e2{a=?b=?
Answered by benjo_mathlover last updated on 08/May/21
limx→0(cosx+asinbx)1x=elimx→0(cosx+asinbx−1).1x=elimx→0(cosx−1+asinbxx)=elimx→0(−sinx+abcosx1)=eab=e2⇒ab=2→{a=kb=2k
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 09/May/21
letf(x)=(cosx+asinbx)1x⇒f(x)=e1xlog(cosx+asinx)cosx∼1−x22andsinbx∼bx⇒cosx+asin(bx)∼1−x22+abx⇒log(cosx+asin(bx))∼log(1+abx−x22)∼abx−x22⇒1xlog(cosx+asin(bx))∼ab−x2→ab⇒f(x)→eab=e2⇒ab=2
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