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Question Number 141716 by qaz last updated on 22/May/21
(x2lnx)y″−xy′+y=0
Answered by mnjuly1970 last updated on 23/May/21
yp1=ln(x)+1oryp1=xconsider:yp1=1+ln(x)because::(x2ln(x))[−1x2]−x(1x)+ln(x)+1=0yp2=v(x).yp1where:v(x)=∫1(1+ln(x))2e∫1xln(x)dxdx=∫1(1+ln(x))2e∫1xln(x)dx=∫eln(ln(x)(1+ln(x))2dx=∫ln(x)(1+ln(x))2dx=ln(x)=t∫tet(1+t)2dt=∫[1+t−1(1+t)2.et]dt=∫[11+t−1(1+t)2]etdt=et1+t⇒v(x)=x1+ln(x)yp2=v(x).yp1=x(1+ln(x))(1+ln(x))=x....yc=c1(1+ln(x))+c2x.....generalsolution....⇑⇑⇑
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