2)calculate Σ_(k=1) ^(n−1) sin(((kπ)/n)) (n>2) 1) use Rieman sum to prove that ∫


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Question Number 142424 by Mathspace last updated on 31/May/21

$2) c a l c u l a t e \sum_{k = 1}^{n - 1} s i n (\frac{k π}{n}) (n > 2)$ $1) u s e R i e m a n s u m t o p r o v e$ $t h a t \int_{0}^{π} l o g (s i n x) d x = - π l o g 2$
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