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Question Number 145755 by loveineq last updated on 07/Jul/21

$$\mathrm{Let}a,b,c>0\mathrm{and}abc=1.\mathrm{Prove}\mathrm{that}$$ $$\frac{8(a^2+1)(b^2+1)(c^2+1)}{(a+1)(b+1)(c+1)}⩽(a+b)(b+c)(c+a)$$

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