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Question Number 147535 by tabata last updated on 21/Jul/21
Commented by tabata last updated on 21/Jul/21
provethat
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 21/Jul/21
letf(a)=∑n=0∞anwith∣a∣<1wehavef′(a)=∑n=1∞nan−1⇒af′(a)=∑n=1∞nanbyderivationwegetf′(a)+af(2)(a)=∑n=1∞n2an−1⇒af′(a)+a2f(2)(a)=∑n=1∞n2anf(a)=an+1−1a−1⇒f′(a)=nan+1−(n+1)an+1(a−1)2⇒f(2)(a)=n(n+1)an−n(n+1)an−1)(a−1)2−2(a−1)(nan+1−(n+1)an+1)(a−1)4=n(n+1)(an−an−1)(a−1)−2nan+1+2(n+1)an−2(a−1)3=n(n+1)(an+1−an−an+an−1)−2nan+1+2(n+1)an−2(a−1)3=(n2+n−2n)an+1+(−2n2−2n+2n+2)an+n(n+1)an−1−2(a−1)3=(n2−n)an+1−2(n2−1)an+n(n+1)an−1−2(a−1)3⇒∑n=1∞n2an=a(a−1)2(nan+1−(n+1)an+1)−a2(1−a)3{(n2−n)an+1−2(n2−1)an+n(n+1)an−1−2}resttosimplifycalculus...
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