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Question Number 148856 by gsk2684 last updated on 31/Jul/21

$$plssolve$$

Commented by gsk2684 last updated on 31/Jul/21

Commented by Kamel last updated on 31/Jul/21

$$I_1={\int }_0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\frac{xdx}{sin\left(x\right)}\stackrel{t=tan\left(\frac{x}{2}\right)}{=}2{\int }_0^1\frac{Arctan\left(t\right)}{t}dt=2I_2$$$$\therefore \frac{I_1}{I_2}=2.$$

Commented by gsk2684 last updated on 01/Aug/21

$$thankyou$$

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