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Question Number 151100 by mathdanisur last updated on 18/Aug/21
if0⩽x;y;z⩽kandk>0then: y(x−z)−z(x−k)⩽k2
Answered by dumitrel last updated on 18/Aug/21
⇔y(x−z)+z(k−x)⩽k2 I.Ifx⩽z⇒y(x−z)⩽0 z(k−x)⩽k⋅k=k2⇒ ⇒y(x−z)+z(k−x)⩽k2 II.Ifx>z⇒ ∣y(x−z)+z(k−x)∣⩽∣y(x−z)∣+∣z(k−x)∣⩽ ⩽k(x−z)+k(k−x)=k(k−z)⩽k2 ⇒y(x−z)+z(k−x)⩽k2
Commented bymathdanisur last updated on 18/Aug/21
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