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Question Number 152974 by Rankut last updated on 03/Sep/21

Commented by Rankut last updated on 03/Sep/21

$$help$$

Commented by mr W last updated on 03/Sep/21

$$trytomakethequestionclear!$$$$doyoumean$$$$f{}^{\prime }\left(x\right)=2,f{}^{\prime }\left(1\right)=0?$$$$thisisnotpossible.$$$$ordoyoumean$$$$f{}^{″}\left(x\right)=2,f{}^{\prime }\left(1\right)=0?$$

Commented by Rankut last updated on 03/Sep/21

$$yesplease$$$$f{}^{″}\left(x\right)=2,f{}^{\prime }\left(1\right)=0$$

Commented by mr W last updated on 03/Sep/21

$$f{}^{″}\left(x\right)=2$$$$\Rightarrow f{}^{\prime }\left(x\right)=2x+C$$$$f{}^{\prime }\left(1\right)=2\times 1+C=0\Rightarrow C=-2$$$$\Rightarrow f{}^{\prime }\left(x\right)=2x-2$$$$\Rightarrow f\left(x\right)=x^2-2x+C_1$$$$f\left(0\right)=0^2-2\times 0+C_1=-8\Rightarrow C_1=-8$$$$\Rightarrow f\left(x\right)=x^2-2x-8$$

Commented by amin96 last updated on 03/Sep/21

$$$$Write as clearly as possible. the image is unclear

Commented by 7770 last updated on 04/Sep/21

$$thankyousir$$

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