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Question Number 153817 by eman_64 last updated on 10/Sep/21

Commented by puissant last updated on 10/Sep/21

Correct..!

$${Correct}..! \\ $$

Commented by alisiao last updated on 10/Sep/21

yes it is very easy     !n = n! × (−1)^n  × (1/(n!))

$$\boldsymbol{{yes}}\:\boldsymbol{{it}}\:\boldsymbol{{is}}\:\boldsymbol{{very}}\:\boldsymbol{{easy}}\: \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$!\boldsymbol{{n}}\:=\:\boldsymbol{{n}}!\:×\:\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{\boldsymbol{{n}}} \:×\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\boldsymbol{{n}}!} \\ $$

Commented by puissant last updated on 11/Sep/21

Sir !n= n!×Σ_(k=0) ^n (−1)^k ×(1/(k!))..

$${Sir}\:!{n}=\:{n}!×\underset{{k}=\mathrm{0}} {\overset{{n}} {\sum}}\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{k}} ×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{k}!}.. \\ $$

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