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Question Number 156951 by mr W last updated on 17/Oct/21

solve for n∈N  (n−1)!+1=n^2

solvefornN(n1)!+1=n2

Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Oct/21

thanks sir!  if n=1, then (n−2)!−(n+1) is not  defined. therefore n≠1.

thankssir!ifn=1,then(n2)!(n+1)isnotdefined.thereforen1.

Commented by Rasheed.Sindhi last updated on 17/Oct/21

(n−1)!+1=n^2   (n−1)!−(n^2 −1)=0  (n−1){(n−2)!−(n+1)}=0  n=1 ∣ (n−2)!−(n+1)=0  But n=1 is false because it doesn′t  fulfill the original.Why is it false?  (n−2)!=n+1 ;n≥2      2≤n≤4: (n−2)!<n+1      n=5:       (5−2)!=5+1✓      n>5:      (n−2)!>n+1            n=5

(n1)!+1=n2(n1)!(n21)=0(n1){(n2)!(n+1)}=0n=1(n2)!(n+1)=0Butn=1isfalsebecauseitdoesntfulfilltheoriginal.Whyisitfalse?(n2)!=n+1;n22n4:(n2)!<n+1n=5:(52)!=5+1n>5:(n2)!>n+1n=5

Commented by Rasheed.Sindhi last updated on 18/Oct/21

mr W Sir^(Thanks) ! You′ve always helped me.  ...I thought it only matter of the  definition:   0!=1  If it were defined 0!=0,the solution  x=1 were not false, although the  other factor be undefined for it.  Afterall ′0!=1′ is a definition which  is made for some necessities.What′s  your openion sir?Your openion matters  to me.

mrWSirThanks!Youvealwayshelpedme....Ithoughtitonlymatterofthedefinition:0!=1Ifitweredefined0!=0,thesolutionx=1werenotfalse,althoughtheotherfactorbeundefinedforit.Afterall0!=1isadefinitionwhichismadeforsomenecessities.Whatsyouropenionsir?Youropenionmatterstome.

Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Oct/21

i think if 0! is defined, then 0! must  be equal to 1. we can not further  define 0!=0, since otherwise we   would get 1!=1×0!=1×0=0,  2!=2×1!=0 etc.

ithinkif0!isdefined,then0!mustbeequalto1.wecannotfurtherdefine0!=0,sinceotherwisewewouldget1!=1×0!=1×0=0,2!=2×1!=0etc.

Commented by Rasheed.Sindhi last updated on 18/Oct/21

Yes Sir,you′re right!

YesSir,youreright!

Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Oct/21

0! is defined! so it is ok with  (n−1)!−(n^2 −1)=0  and you can put n=1 into it.  but if you factorise it to  (n−1){(n−2)!−(n+1)}=0  (n−2)! must be defined, that means  n−2≥0.

0!isdefined!soitisokwith(n1)!(n21)=0andyoucanputn=1intoit.butifyoufactoriseitto(n1){(n2)!(n+1)}=0(n2)!mustbedefined,thatmeansn20.

Commented by Rasheed.Sindhi last updated on 18/Oct/21

Thanks very much!  But I think n≥2 is only for other  values of n.  Sir I only talk about supposition.  If 0!=0 ,then...  Then the solution may contain 1  or not?

Thanksverymuch!ButIthinkn2isonlyforothervaluesofn.SirIonlytalkaboutsupposition.If0!=0,then...Thenthesolutionmaycontain1ornot?

Answered by mindispower last updated on 17/Oct/21

⇔n^2 −1−(n−1)!=0,n≥1,n=1not solution  ∀n,N−{0,1}=E  ⇔(n−1)(n+1−(n−2)!)=0  (n+1)=(n−2)!  n≥5  (n−2)!≥n+1...?  n=5 3!≥6 true  suppose ∀n≥5 (n−2)!≥n+1,⇒(n−1)!≥n+2  (n−1)!=(n−2)!.(n−1)≥(n+1)(n−1)=n^2 −1  n.n−1≥5n−1=4n+n−1≥20−1+n=n+19>2n+2  ⇒(n−1)!>n+2  ⇒∀n≥5 (n−2)!≥(n+1),∀n>6 (n−2)!>n+1  just try n∈{2,3,4,5)  2⇒1+1=2^2 ,n=3⇒3=9,n=4⇒7=16  n=5⇒25=5^2   ⇒n=5

n21(n1)!=0,n1,n=1notsolutionn,N{0,1}=E(n1)(n+1(n2)!)=0(n+1)=(n2)!n5(n2)!n+1...?n=53!6truesupposen5(n2)!n+1,(n1)!n+2(n1)!=(n2)!.(n1)(n+1)(n1)=n21n.n15n1=4n+n1201+n=n+19>2n+2(n1)!>n+2n5(n2)!(n+1),n>6(n2)!>n+1justtryn{2,3,4,5)21+1=22,n=33=9,n=47=16n=525=52n=5

Commented by mr W last updated on 17/Oct/21

thanks sir!

thankssir!

Commented by mindispower last updated on 18/Oct/21

withe pleasur sir

withepleasursir

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