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Question Number 157071 by MathSh last updated on 19/Oct/21

$$\mathrm{if}0<\mathrm{x}⩽\frac{\pi }{2}\mathrm{then}:$$ $$\frac{1}{\sin \mathbf{x}}+\frac{2}{\pi \mathrm{x}}⩽{(1-\frac{2}{\pi })}^2+\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}}+\frac{2}{\pi }$$

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