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Question Number 157435 by MathSh last updated on 23/Oct/21

Answered by mindispower last updated on 23/Oct/21

$$\sim \frac{{ln}^{{\mathrm{\Phi }}^2-\phi \mathrm{\Phi }}(1+x)}{1+x},x\to \mathrm{\infty }$$$${\mathrm{\Phi }}^2-\phi \mathrm{\Phi }>0notintegrablesirtcheckit$$

Commented by MathSh last updated on 23/Oct/21

$$\mathrm{Yes}\mathrm{dear}\mathbf{Ser}\mathrm{thank}\mathrm{you}\mathrm{so}\mathrm{much}$$

Commented by MathSh last updated on 23/Oct/21

$$\mathrm{Im}\mathrm{really}\mathrm{sorry}\mathrm{dear}\mathbf{Ser},\mathrm{I}\mathrm{had}\mathrm{made}$$$$\mathrm{typo}\mathrm{this}\mathrm{is}\mathrm{divergent},\mathrm{thank}\mathrm{you}\mathrm{dear}\mathbf{Ser}$$

Commented by mindispower last updated on 23/Oct/21

$$iWastryingbutisaidmaybee$$$$\frac{{ln}^{\mathrm{\Phi }}(1+x)}{(1+x){(1+{ln}^{2\mathrm{\Phi }}\left(x\right))}^{\phi }}?$$

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