Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

None Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in None      Next in None      

Question Number 158453 by zakirullah last updated on 04/Nov/21

prove (d/dx)sec^2 (π/4) = 2

$${prove}\:\frac{{d}}{{dx}}{sec}^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}\:=\:\mathrm{2} \\ $$

Commented by yeti123 last updated on 04/Nov/21

(d/dx)(sec^2 (π/4)) = (d/dx)(2) = 0

$$\frac{{d}}{{dx}}\left(\mathrm{sec}^{\mathrm{2}} \left(\pi/\mathrm{4}\right)\right)\:=\:\frac{{d}}{{dx}}\left(\mathrm{2}\right)\:=\:\mathrm{0} \\ $$

Commented by zakirullah last updated on 04/Nov/21

excuse me sir! i mean   how f^′ ((π/4)) = sec^2 (π/4) = 2 according to taylor series.

$${excuse}\:{me}\:{sir}!\:{i}\:{mean} \\ $$$$\:{how}\:{f}^{'} \left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}\right)\:=\:{sec}^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}\:=\:\mathrm{2}\:{according}\:{to}\:{taylor}\:{series}. \\ $$$$ \\ $$

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com