Question Number 160113 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 25/Nov/21 | ||
$$ \\ $$$$\:\:{prove}\:\: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\Phi:=\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \frac{\:{sinh}\left({x}\right)}{{cosh}^{\mathrm{2}} \left({x}\right)}.\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}\:{dx}\:\overset{???} {=}\:\frac{\mathrm{4G}}{\pi} \\ $$ | ||
Answered by mindispower last updated on 24/Nov/21 | ||
$${i}\:{think}\:{somthing}\:{Wrong} \\ $$$$\int\frac{{sh}\left({x}\right)}{{ch}^{\mathrm{2}} \left({x}\right)}{dx}=−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{ch}\left({x}\right)}+{c} \\ $$ | ||
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 25/Nov/21 | ||
$${yes}\:..{thank}\:{you}\:{sir} \\ $$$${i}\:{corrected}\:{it} \\ $$ | ||