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Question Number 160113 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 25/Nov/21

    prove          Φ:= ∫_0 ^( ∞) (( sinh(x))/(cosh^2 (x))).(1/x) dx =^(???)  ((4G)/π)

$$ \\ $$$$\:\:{prove}\:\: \\ $$$$\:\:\:\:\:\:\Phi:=\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} \frac{\:{sinh}\left({x}\right)}{{cosh}^{\mathrm{2}} \left({x}\right)}.\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}\:{dx}\:\overset{???} {=}\:\frac{\mathrm{4G}}{\pi} \\ $$

Answered by mindispower last updated on 24/Nov/21

i think somthing Wrong  ∫((sh(x))/(ch^2 (x)))dx=−(1/(ch(x)))+c

$${i}\:{think}\:{somthing}\:{Wrong} \\ $$$$\int\frac{{sh}\left({x}\right)}{{ch}^{\mathrm{2}} \left({x}\right)}{dx}=−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{ch}\left({x}\right)}+{c} \\ $$

Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 25/Nov/21

yes ..thank you sir  i corrected it

$${yes}\:..{thank}\:{you}\:{sir} \\ $$$${i}\:{corrected}\:{it} \\ $$

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