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Question Number 161280 by HongKing last updated on 15/Dec/21
ifx;y;z>0and11+x+11+y+11+z=1 thenprovethat: x+y+z⩾34xyz
Answered by 1549442205PVT last updated on 16/Dec/21
Fromthehypothesis11+x+11+y+11+z=1 wegetxy+yz+zx+2(x+y+z)+3=xyz+xy+yz+zx+x+y+z+1 orx+y+z+2=xyz.Hence,theinequality whichweneedprovetobeequivalentto 4(x+y+z)⩾3(x+y+z+2)⇔x+y+z⩾6(∗) Fromthehypothesisx+y+z+2=xyz, applyingtheinequalityAM−GMwe havex+y+z+2=xyz⩽(x+y+z3)3 ⇒a3−27a−54⩾0⇒(a−6)(a2+6a+9)⩾0 ⇔(a−6)(a+3)2⩾0⇒a=x+y+z⩾6 Thus,theinequality(∗)proved,so x+y+z⩾34xyz(q.e.d) Theequalityoccursifandonlyif x=y=z=2
Commented byHongKing last updated on 17/Dec/21
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