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Question Number 161280 by HongKing last updated on 15/Dec/21

if  x;y;z>0  and  (1/(1+x)) + (1/(1+y)) + (1/(1+z)) = 1  then prove that:  x + y + z ≥ (3/4) xyz

ifx;y;z>0and11+x+11+y+11+z=1 thenprovethat: x+y+z34xyz

Answered by 1549442205PVT last updated on 16/Dec/21

From the hypothesis  (1/(1+x)) + (1/(1+y)) + (1/(1+z)) = 1  we get xy+yz+zx+2(x+y+z)+3=xyz+xy+yz+zx+x+y+z+1  or x+y+z+2=xyz.Hence,the inequality  which we need prove to be equivalent to   4(x+y+z)≥3(x+y+z+2)⇔x+y+z≥6(∗)  From the hypothesis x+y+z+2=xyz,  applying the inequality AM−GM we  have x+y+z+2=xyz≤(((x+y+z)/3))^3   ⇒a^3 −27a−54≥0⇒(a−6)(a^2 +6a+9)≥0  ⇔(a−6)(a+3)^2 ≥0⇒a=x+y+z≥6  Thus,the inequality (∗)proved,so  x+y+z≥(3/4)xyz(q.e.d)  The equality occurs if and only if  x=y=z=2

Fromthehypothesis11+x+11+y+11+z=1 wegetxy+yz+zx+2(x+y+z)+3=xyz+xy+yz+zx+x+y+z+1 orx+y+z+2=xyz.Hence,theinequality whichweneedprovetobeequivalentto 4(x+y+z)3(x+y+z+2)x+y+z6() Fromthehypothesisx+y+z+2=xyz, applyingtheinequalityAMGMwe havex+y+z+2=xyz(x+y+z3)3 a327a540(a6)(a2+6a+9)0 (a6)(a+3)20a=x+y+z6 Thus,theinequality()proved,so x+y+z34xyz(q.e.d) Theequalityoccursifandonlyif x=y=z=2

Commented byHongKing last updated on 17/Dec/21

perfect my dear Sir thank you

perfectmydearSirthankyou

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