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Question Number 162410 by mahdipoor last updated on 29/Dec/21
∫dx(a−cosx)2a>1
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 29/Dec/21
letf(a)=∫dxa−cosx⇒f′(a)=−∫dx(a−cosx)2⇒ ∫dx(a−cosx)2=−f′(a)(a>1) f(a)=tan(x2)=t∫2dt(1+t2)(a−1−t21+t2) =2∫dta+at2−1+t2=2∫dta−1+(a+1)t2=2a+1∫dtt2+a−1a+1 =t=a−1a+1y2a+1∫1a−1a+1(1+y2)a−1a+1dy =2a−1×a−1a+1arctan(a+1a−1t)+c=2a2−1arctan(a+1a−1tan(x2)) f(a)=2(a2−1)−12arctan(tan(x2)Ψ(a)) Ψ(a)=a+1a−1 ⇒f′(a)=−(2a)(a2−1)−32arctan(tan(x2)Ψ(a) +2(a2−1)−12×tan(x2)Ψ′(a)1+tan2(x2)Ψ2(a) Ψ′(a)=12(a+1a−1)′(a+1a−1)−12=12(a−1+2a−1)′(a+1a−1)−12 =−1(a−1)2a+1a−1 f(a)isknown...
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