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Question Number 166554 by cortano1 last updated on 22/Feb/22

$${\int }_{-\mathrm{\infty }}^{\mathrm{\infty }}\sin \left(\frac{1}{2}\pi \mathrm{x}(\mathrm{x}+1)\right)\cos \left(\pi {\mathrm{x}}^2\right)\mathrm{dx}=?$$

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