Question and Answers Forum

All Questions      Topic List

Algebra Questions

Previous in All Question      Next in All Question      

Previous in Algebra      Next in Algebra      

Question Number 170110 by mathlove last updated on 16/May/22

prove that  e^(iθ) =cosθ+isinθ

provethateiθ=cosθ+isinθ

Commented by ajfour last updated on 16/May/22

1×e^(iθ) =z is   1 rotated by θ anticlockwise .  hence z=cos θ+isin θ=e^(iθ)   draw a diagram n u know.

1×eiθ=zis1rotatedbyθanticlockwise.hencez=cosθ+isinθ=eiθdrawadiagramnuknow.

Answered by floor(10²Eta[1]) last updated on 16/May/22

using the mclaurin series:  f(x)=Σ_(n=0) ^∞ ((f^((n)) (0))/(n!))x^n   for e^x , sinx, cosx, we have:  e^x =1+x+(x^2 /(2!))+(x^3 /(3!))+...  sinx=x−(x^3 /(3!))+(x^5 /(5!))−(x^7 /(7!))+...  cosx=1−(x^2 /(2!))+(x^4 /(4!))−(x^6 /(6!))+...  ⇒e^(iθ) =1+iθ+(((iθ)^2 )/(2!))+(((iθ)^3 )/(3!))+...  =1+iθ−(θ^2 /(2!))−i(θ^3 /(3!))+(θ^4 /(4!))+((iθ^5 )/(5!))−(θ^6 /(6!))−((iθ^7 )/(7!))+...  =(1−(θ^2 /(2!))+(θ^4 /(4!))−(θ^6 /(6!))+...)+i(θ−(θ^3 /(3!))+(θ^5 /(5!))−(θ^7 /(7!))+...)  =cosθ+isinθ

usingthemclaurinseries:f(x)=n=0f(n)(0)n!xnforex,sinx,cosx,wehave:ex=1+x+x22!+x33!+...sinx=xx33!+x55!x77!+...cosx=1x22!+x44!x66!+...eiθ=1+iθ+(iθ)22!+(iθ)33!+...=1+iθθ22!iθ33!+θ44!+iθ55!θ66!iθ77!+...=(1θ22!+θ44!θ66!+...)+i(θθ33!+θ55!θ77!+...)=cosθ+isinθ

Commented by peter frank last updated on 16/May/22

thank you

thankyou

Commented by mathlove last updated on 16/May/22

thanks

thanks

Answered by MJS_new last updated on 18/May/22

cos θ =((e^(iθ) +e^(−iθ) )/2)  sin θ =((e^(iθ) −e^(−iθ) )/(2i))  cos θ +i sin θ =((e^(iθ) +e^(−iθ) )/2)+i((e^(iθ) −e^(−iθ) )/(2i))=e^(iθ)

cosθ=eiθ+eiθ2sinθ=eiθeiθ2icosθ+isinθ=eiθ+eiθ2+ieiθeiθ2i=eiθ

Terms of Service

Privacy Policy

Contact: info@tinkutara.com