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Question Number 175244 by infinityaction last updated on 24/Aug/22
provethat∫0a∫0a2−x2dxdy(1+ey)a2−x2−y2=π2log2ea1+ea
Answered by Ar Brandon last updated on 24/Aug/22
I=∫0a∫0a2−y2dxdy(1+ey)a2−x2−y2=∫0a11+ey∫0a2−y2dx(a2−y2)−x2dy=∫0a11+ey[arcsin(xa2−y2)]0a2−y2dy=π2∫0a11+eydy=π2∫0ae−ye−y+1dy=−π2[ln(e−y+1)]0a=π2(ln2−ln(e−a+1))=π2ln(2e−a+1)=π2ln(2ea1+ea)
Commented by infinityaction last updated on 24/Aug/22
thankssir
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