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Question Number 178572 by Spillover last updated on 18/Oct/22

Show that   ∼[p∨(∼p∧q)] and [∼p∧∼q]  are  logically equivalent

$$\mathrm{Show}\:\mathrm{that}\: \\ $$$$\sim\left[\mathrm{p}\vee\left(\sim\mathrm{p}\wedge\mathrm{q}\right)\right]\:\mathrm{and}\:\left[\sim\mathrm{p}\wedge\sim\mathrm{q}\right]\:\:\mathrm{are} \\ $$$$\mathrm{logically}\:\mathrm{equivalent} \\ $$

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