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Question Number 185245 by Mastermind last updated on 19/Jan/23

$$\mathrm{Show}\mathrm{that}\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{z}\right)={\mathrm{z}}^2\mathrm{is}\mathrm{uniformly}$$ $$\mathrm{continous}\mathrm{in}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{region}\mid \mathrm{z}\mid <\mathrm{R}$$ $$\mathrm{where}0<\mathrm{R}<\mathrm{\infty }.$$ $$$$ $$$$ $$\mathrm{Help}!$$

Commented byFrix last updated on 19/Jan/23

$$\mathrm{What}\mathrm{does}\mathrm{♮}\mathrm{uniformly}\mathrm{continous}\epsilon \mathrm{mean}?$$ $$\mathrm{The}\mathrm{answer}\mathrm{to}\mathrm{your}\mathrm{question}\mathrm{is}\mathrm{easy}\mathrm{once}$$ $$\mathrm{you}\mathrm{understood}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{definition}.$$

Answered by 123564 last updated on 20/Jan/23

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