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Question Number 187088 by mustafazaheen last updated on 13/Feb/23

$$\mathrm{prove}\mathrm{to}\frac{0}{0}=2$$

Commented by Frix last updated on 13/Feb/23

$$\frac{0}{0}\mathrm{is}\mathrm{not}\mathrm{defined}\Rightarrow \mathrm{no}\mathrm{proof}\mathrm{possible}.$$$$f\left(r\right)=0\wedge g\left(r\right)=0:\underset{x\to r}{\lim }\frac{f\left(x\right)}{g\left(x\right)}=L$$$$L\mathrm{can}\mathrm{be}\mathrm{undefined}\mathrm{or}\mathrm{have}\mathrm{any}\mathrm{value}$$$$\mathrm{depending}\mathrm{on}\mathrm{the}\mathrm{nature}\mathrm{of}f\left(x\right)\mathrm{and}g\left(x\right)$$

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