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Question Number 187695 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 20/Feb/23
If,f(x)=sin(cos(x))πx⇒f′(π2)=?
Answered by horsebrand11 last updated on 20/Feb/23
f(x)=xsin(cosx)πf′(π2)=limx→π2f(x)−f(π2)x−π2=1πlimx→π2xsin(cosx)−π2sin(cosπ2)x−π2=1π.π2.limx→π2sin(cosx)x−π2=12.limx→0sin(−sinx)x=12.limx→0−sinxx=−12
Answered by cortano12 last updated on 20/Feb/23
f(x)=xsin(cosx)πf′(x)=1π[sin(cosx)2x−xsinxcos(cosx)]f′(π2)=1π[0−π2.1]=−22
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